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derived from the Hebrew name that we know as Joshua. The leader of Israel who took the
               people into their promised land was indeed a type of Yahshua the Messiah, and in the day
               in which Yahshua lived others would have recognized the Messiah’s name as being the same
               as the hero of the Old Testament.
                     Yahshua (Joshua) was a common name in the day in which Messiah appeared. There
               are others recorded in scripture who shared the same name. In the genealogy of Yahshua,
               another  of  the  same  name  is  also  mentioned,  although  most  translations  record  it
               differently.


                       Luke 3:29
                       the son of Joshua [Greek Iesous, Hebrew Yahshua], the son of Eliezer, the son of
                       Jorim, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi...


                     Also, Yahshua the Messiah often had appellations added to His name to identify which
               Yahshua He was. He was referred to as “Yahshua the Christ or Messiah,” “Yahshua of
               Nazareth,” “Yahshua Messiah of Nazareth,” etc.. This was to identify which Yahshua was
               being referenced.
                     A question I have not been able to arrive at a satisfactory answer to is “Why did the
               translators render the Greek Iesous as Jesus in some instances and as Joshua, Jose, or other
               renderings in other places?” If the translators knew that the Messiah shared the same name
               as the leader of Israel who took the people into the promised land, then why did they not
               render both names the same? It would be much more authentic if the English speaking
               church knew the Messiah by the name Joshua, for Joshua is the anglicization of the Hebrew
               Yahshua.
                     It is evident that the translators understood this. One need only look at a couple of
               New Testament scriptures to discern this fact.

                       Luke 3:29
                       the son of Joshua [Strong’s 2424 Iesous]
                       (NAS)

                       Acts 7:45
                       "And having received it in their turn, our fathers brought it in with Joshua [Strong’s
                       2424  Iesous]  upon  dispossessing  the  nations  whom  God  drove  out  before  our
                       fathers, until the time of David.
                       (NAS)

                       Hebrews 4:8
                       For if Joshua [Strong’s 2424 Iesous] had given them rest, He would not have spoken
                       of another day after that.
                       (NAS)

                     This  word,  Strong’s  2424  Iesous,  is  the  same  name  translated  as  Jesus  nearly
               everywhere else in the New Testament. If the translators knew that Jesus was the same
               name as the Hebrew leader whom we know as Joshua, then why did they not translate the
               names the same? The rather indiscriminate manner of choosing how to render Biblical
               names has led to the obscuring of the links between those who serve as types and antitypes
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