Page 97 - Yahwehs Book
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Thirdly, the statement that "The original New Testament was not written in Greek, but Aramaic,"
               is a belief held only by a small minority of Bible scholars, many of whom are members of groups
               described as Hebraic Roots, or Messianic congregations. Those who hold to this view are influenced
               by a bias toward Hebrew and against Greek. The existing evidence in ancient manuscripts does not
               support the belief that the New Testament was originally written in Aramaic. The oldest manuscripts
               of the New Testament, and the most complete, are written in Greek. The majority opinion among
               Bible scholars is that the Peshitta was translated from existing Greek manuscripts into the Syriac
               language. I think there should at the very least be some acknowledgment of the fact that the claim
               of the New Testament being written in Aramaic is highly contested. By failing to admit this, those
               who produced this Hebraic Roots Bible version are demonstrating their bias in the matter.


               Fourthly, the Peshitta did not include the books 2 Peter, 2 John, 3 John, Jude, and Revelation. These
               were added centuries later because it was disputed by believers in Syria as to whether these writings
               ought to be included in the canon of Scripture. It is therefore disingenuous to write as if the Bible
               as we recognize it today was originally contained in the Peshitta.


               As one examines the argument for an original Aramaic New Testament, there are serious obstacles.
               For one, much of the New Testament was written to Greek speaking Gentiles. Luke wrote both his
               gospel and the book of Acts, addressing them to Theophilus, which is clearly a Greek name meaning
               "lover of God." It is likely that Theophilus was not an individual, but a name Luke employed to
               denote that his writings were for all who were lovers of God. If Luke’s audience had been Hebrew
               speaking people, it seems unlikely that he would have chosen this Greek name to open his writings.
               Then there are Paul's many epistles, comprising a majority of the books of the New Testament. Paul
               was sent to the Gentiles, not to the Jews.


               Ephesians 3:8
               To me, the very least of all saints, this grace was given, to preach to the Gentiles the unfathomable
               riches of Christ.

               Galatians 2:7-8
               Seeing that I had been entrusted with the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter had been to the
               circumcised  (for  He  who  effectually  worked  for  Peter  in  his  apostleship  to  the  circumcised
               effectually worked for me also to the Gentiles)...


               Why would Paul write his epistles to the Greek speaking Gentiles in Aramaic?
               ---
               After writing to this brother, I looked up some Scriptures in the Hebraic Roots Bible to see how they
               handled Paul’s words relating to the Law. I had rightly surmised that they had made unfaithful
               alterations to the apostle’s words.


               Romans 7:4-6
               4 So that, my brothers, you also were made dead to the (penalty of the) Law through the body of
               Messiah, for you to become another's, to the One raised from the dead, so that we may bear fruit to
               Elohim.
               5 For when we were in the flesh, the passions of sin were working in our members through the Law
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